‏ Matthew 22:43-44

Verse 43. How then, etc. How is this doctrine, that he is descended from David, consistent with what David said when he calls him Lord? How can your opinion be reconciled with that ? That is recorded in Ps 110:1. A lord or master is a superior. The word here does not necessarily imply Divinity, but only superiority. David calls him his superior, his Lord, his Master, his Lawgiver; and expresses his willingness to obey him. If the Messiah was to be merely a descendant of David, as other men descended from parents--if he was to have a human nature only, as you Jews suppose--if he did not exist when David wrote-- with what propriety could he, then, call him his Lord?

In spirit. By the inspiration of the Holy Spirit. As a prophet, Acts 2:30, 1:16, 2Sam 23:2.

(o) "call him Lord" Ps 110:1, Acts 2:34, Heb 1:13, 10:12,13
Verse 44. The Lord said, etc. This is the language of David. "Jehovah said unto my Lord"--the Messiah--" Sit thou," etc. This was a prediction respecting the exaltation of Christ. To be raised to the right hand of a king was significant of favor, trust, and power. Mt 20:21. This was done respecting Christ, Mk 16:19, Acts 7:55, Rom 8:34, Eph 1:20, Heb 1:3; 8:1, 10:12.

Thine enemies thy footstool. A footstool is that which is under the feet when we are sitting--implying that we have it under subjection, or at our control. So he shall put all enemies under his feet--all his spiritual foes--all that rise up against him, Ps 2:9,12 Heb 10:13, 1Cor 15:25.
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